Forbiddeth to Abstain
Doctrine and Covenants 49 was given to the Shakers, a group who had several beliefs that the Lord addressed in the revelation. One of these was that they forbade the eating of meat. In response, the Lord said this: “And whoso forbiddeth to abstain from meats, that man should not eat the same, is not ordained of God; For, behold, the beasts of the field and the fowls of the air, and that which cometh of the earth, is ordained for the use of man for food and for raiment, and that he might have in abundance” (v18-19). The language here is certainly confusing because of the double negative. The footnote, added by the Church, changes “forbiddeth” to “biddeth” which of course completely changes the literal meaning. Other language translations are consistent with the footnote version of the verse. French, for example, says this: “Et quiconque ordonne de s’abstenir de viandes” which translated back into English is “and whoso commandeth to abstain from meats.” What is perhaps most unfortunate is that the way this verse is interpreted centers on a topic that is already somewhat controversial. If we are to understand the verse using the footnote and how it is translated in other languages, why does the original language of the revelation suggest the opposite?
I
finally found an explanation that satisfactorily answers this question for me.
This article
from Loren Blake Spendlove describes how the phrase “forbiddeth to abstain” was
an idiom used in English up until the mid-19th century to mean “commandeth
to abstain.” Just as we might say now “I don’t know nothing” to really mean, “I
don’t know anything,” this phrase “forbiddeth to abstain” was used in many
places to really mean the opposite. Spendlove gave twelve examples from other
texts that show this phrase used in the same way as the Doctrine and Covenants.
Here is one example he gave: “Published in 1648 in London, a book entitled The
Theatre of Gods [sic] Judgements [sic] explained that ‘it is to good reason,
that Scripture forbids us to abstain from the lust of the flesh and the eyes,
which is of the world and the corruption of mans [sic] own nature.’ It is
obvious from the context of this passage that the intended meaning of ‘forbids
us to abstain’ cannot be the literal one, which would prohibit us from
refraining from the lusts of the flesh.” After citing many other examples as
well, he summarized, “Forbid to abstain was an accepted and broadly
used English idiom, especially as it pertained to matters of religious import,
and that the meaning of this idiom was in direct opposition to its literal
meaning. This idiom first appeared in English literature, no later than the
early sixteenth century, and continued in use until at least 1866. As such, the
idiom was still in use at the time that section 49 of the Doctrine and
Covenants was received by Joseph Smith, Jr. in 1831.” He continued, “Accordingly,
D&C 49:18 would be best understood if the word forbiddeth were
replaced by commandeth, which would give us: ‘And whoso commandeth
to abstain from meats, that man should not eat the same, is not ordained of God.’”
This explanation suggests then that the confusion around this verse for us lies
not in a mistake in the revelation that Joseph received but in the evolution of
language itself which has lost the original meaning of this phrase.
Comments
Post a Comment
Comments: